Reply to Thread

Message:: [QUOTE="Walter Del Pellegrino, post: 3547, member: 90"]Thank you lilfont. The Alhambra vases are gorgeous but only date to the late 14th century A.D., which makes them "new" in comparison to the Greek painted "vases" of the 6th B.C., which of course were never intended for floral displays.Again, however, it does not answer the question. The question was not when did the term Vase enter the English language (1629 according to the Oxford English Dictionary) but rather when did containers develop in Europe specifically to display cut flowers? In the context of this specific discussion the statement that "just because the vase is unable to perform it's vasely duties, doesn't make it any less of a vase " is untrue. In this matter, and this matter only, if the item was not meant to hold flowers it should be considered a "container" and not a vase.If the Oxford English Dictionary is correct in dating the use of the word vase to 1629 then both our theories (that it was the introduction of Chinese porcelains) will stand scrutiny. If other sources, which date the word to the late 16th then I will have to continue my search.This has, indeed, been a most delightful,incisive and informative discussion and I am most grateful to those who contributed their thoughts and knowledge. Thank you[/QUOTE]