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<p>[QUOTE=&quot;afantiques, post: 432428, member: 25&quot;]I would be inclined to say yes, but cannot cite any fixed rule. One commercial reason was so that retailers could add their own labels. Only the up-market concoctions would be proudly owned by the makers.</p><p>The &#039;Brand&#039; thing is a 20th C innovation, attaching makers names to low priced mass market products, and is mostly irrelevant in the world of antiques.</p><p><br /></p><p>It is almost always immaterial who made routine&nbsp;&nbsp; 19th C. goods, no-one remembers them now anyway. Only a few names have substantial status before 1900, it was mass literacy and mass advertising that invented the current obsesssion that brand names have become.[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>

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