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<p>[QUOTE=&quot;Kasperscuriosities, post: 150977, member: 404&quot;]So I have this piece coming in. Yes I know. I have an appraisal on it of 46K. The client purchased for 31k at auction a few years ago, I also have that receipt. My problem is this. I see Christie&#039;s recently had one similar that sold for less than 10k. Why is there such a difference in my clients appraisal and the selling price at Christie&#039;s? My client said they know they will not get 31K but they want to sell. I am a little scared of this piece. It is authenticated, it is real that is not my concern. I just don&#039;t know if we can pull it off. </p><p><br /></p><p>Here is the description from the appraisal and some pictures of the piece. </p><p><br /></p><p>Etching and drypoint on laid paper with wear and small tears in the margins only. Signed and dated, Rembrandt F. 1639 Strasburg Lilly watermark, fleur-de-lis on crown shield with 4+WR&nbsp; countermark below shield (Ash and Fletcher 36) A seventeenth century impression. </p><p><br /></p><p>I will be honest I have no idea what all that above means. Could it be the one at Christie&#039;s was a later impression of the same plate? The client said she does have a source up North but would prefer to work local and is willing to let us have a go at it. We are getting several high end pieces in this month including a Peter Max Liberty and a couple more Dali&#039;s and a few Picasso. Along with some other odds and ends. We are going to have another 500 lots. I am so over whelmed. This would most likely not be in this months auction. I want to do it right. I would love some thoughts on it. Thanks so much. </p><p><br /></p><p>[ATTACH=full]40750[/ATTACH] [ATTACH=full]40751[/ATTACH] [ATTACH=full]40752[/ATTACH] [ATTACH=full]40753[/ATTACH][/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>

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